PeopleCert ITIL-4-Practitioner-Deployment-Management ITIL 4 Practitioner: Deployment Management Exam Practice Test

Answer : D

Continuous delivery (CD) in ITIL 4 extends continuous integration (CI) by ensuring that every validated change is ready for deployment to production, enabling smaller and more frequent releases. The key benefit for users is that they experience changes which are smaller and more frequent (Option D), reducing risk, improving feedback cycles, and delivering value faster.

Option A (Developers spend less time fixing issues in their code): Incorrect, as while CD may reduce some issues through automation, this is not its primary benefit, and CI already includes frequent testing to catch issues early.

Option B (Code is tested iteratively and frequently): Incorrect, as iterative and frequent testing is a feature of continuous integration, not a new benefit introduced by continuous delivery.

Option C (Deployments of software builds are scripted to allow for automation): Incorrect, as scripting and automation are part of both CI and CD pipelines, not a unique benefit of introducing CD.

Option D (Users experience changes which are smaller and more frequent): Correct, as CD enables rapid, incremental releases to production, directly benefiting users with faster and less disruptive updates.

Answer : C

In a DevOps environment with independent product teams and centralized governance, ITIL 4 recommends balancing autonomy with consistency. Option C, where a centralized deployment management team supports product teams by providing guidance and tooling, aligns with this approach. It ensures that teams retain flexibility to deploy efficiently while benefiting from standardized tools, best practices, and governance, maintaining organizational alignment and reducing risks of inconsistency.

Option A (Each development team should have an independent deployment manager who owns all aspects of deployment within that team): Incorrect, as fully independent deployment managers per team could lead to inconsistent practices and tools, undermining centralized governance and creating silos.

Option B (A centralized deployment management team should manage and coordinate deployments for all development teams): Incorrect, as centralizing all deployment activities reduces team autonomy, contradicting DevOps principles of empowering teams and slowing down delivery.

Option C (A centralized deployment management team should support the product teams by providing guidance and tooling): Correct, as it supports DevOps autonomy while ensuring consistency through shared tools (e.g., CI/CD pipelines) and guidance, aligning with ITIL 4's focus on value co-creation and governance.

Option D (Software developers in each team should take full responsibility for deployment of software that they develop): Incorrect, as while developers often handle deployments in DevOps, completely bypassing a structured deployment management practice risks non-compliance with governance and inconsistent outcomes.

Answer : B

Continuous deployment (CD) in ITIL 4 is the most advanced stage of the CI/CD pipeline, where every validated change is automatically deployed to production without manual intervention. The key feature unique to continuous deployment, not found in continuous integration or continuous delivery, is that it enables users to benefit immediately from changes (Option B), as changes reach production instantly after passing automated tests.

Option A (It automatically tests software code): Incorrect, as automated testing is a feature of continuous integration and continuous delivery, not unique to continuous deployment.

Option B (It enables users to benefit immediately from changes): Correct, as continuous deployment automatically pushes validated changes to production, delivering value to users without delay, unlike other CI/CD stages.

Option C (It predominantly uses staging environments): Incorrect, as continuous deployment minimizes reliance on staging environments, deploying directly to production.

Option D (It allows individual decisions about software releases): Incorrect, as continuous deployment eliminates manual release decisions, relying on automation for consistency.

Answer : B

In ITIL 4, the deployment manager role focuses on strategic and coordinating activities, such as overseeing resource allocation and aligning deployment plans with broader service management objectives. The correct activities are:

Activity 2 (Prioritizing multiple deployments that require use of the same resources): A deployment manager ensures efficient resource use by prioritizing conflicting deployments, a key managerial responsibility.

Activity 3 (Ensuring deployment plans support other service management plans): The deployment manager aligns deployment activities with other practices (e.g., change enablement, release management) to ensure coherence across service management, another strategic task.

Activity 1 (Ensuring that deployment records are up-to-date and correct): This is typically a task for a deployment practitioner, who handles operational details like record-keeping, not a manager's core responsibility.

Activity 4 (Capturing and verifying users' opinions on deployments): This aligns more with practices like relationship management or service desk activities, not the deployment manager's role, which focuses on planning and execution rather than user feedback collection.

Answer : A

In ITIL 4, the 'verification of service components' activity within the deployment lifecycle management process ensures that delivered components meet specifications before deployment. The correct activities are:

Activity 1 (Checking that the correct models of server have been supplied): Part of verification, as it confirms that the hardware components match requirements.

Activity 2 (Testing the software for defects): Part of verification, as it ensures the software is functional and free of critical issues before deployment.

Activity 3 (Creating a schedule for installing the new servers): Incorrect, as scheduling is a planning activity, not verification.

Activity 4 (Installing the new software to the newly installed servers): Incorrect, as installation is part of the deployment execution, not verification.

Answer : C

When a newly developed deployment model cannot be tested due to technical limitations, ITIL 4 emphasizes a risk-based approach to deployment management to ensure stability and minimize disruption. Option C, closely monitoring the first few uses of the new model, aligns with ITIL 4's guidance to proceed cautiously when full testing is not feasible. This approach allows the organization to deploy the model in a controlled environment, observe its performance, and quickly address any issues, thereby reducing risk while gathering real-world data.

Option A (Only use the new model after a way to test it has been found): While testing is ideal, delaying deployment indefinitely until a testing method is found may not be practical, especially if business needs require timely deployment. This option is overly restrictive and does not balance risk with operational demands.

Option B (Carry out test deployments to see if the model works correctly): Conducting test deployments assumes testing is possible, which contradicts the question's premise that testing cannot be done for technical reasons. This makes the option invalid.

Option C (Closely monitor the first few uses of the new model): This is the most pragmatic approach, as it allows deployment with safeguards like monitoring to mitigate risks, aligning with ITIL's focus on value delivery and risk management.

Option D (Automate the activities of the new model before it is used): Automating an untested model could amplify risks, as automation without validation may propagate errors across environments.

Answer : A

ITIL 4's deployment management practice encompasses moving hardware, software, and associated components into or out of environments (e.g., staging, testing, or production) to support service delivery. Option A, which includes deploying network hubs (hardware) and removing applications from staging environments (software), accurately reflects this broad scope across the service lifecycle.

Option A (The practice includes deploying network hubs to and removing applications from staging environments): Correct, as it covers both hardware and software movements across environments, aligning with ITIL 4's definition of deployment management.

Option B (The practice includes updating service documentation and transferring it to the live environment): Incorrect, as updating and transferring documentation is part of knowledge management, not deployment management.

Option C (The practice includes removing configuration documentation but not physical servers from the live environment): Incorrect, as deployment management includes moving physical servers, and configuration documentation is managed elsewhere.

Option D (The practice includes deploying network hubs but not additional software licenses to the live environment): Incorrect, as software licenses may be part of deployment if required, and the option arbitrarily limits the scope.