iSQI CTFL_Syll2018 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Exam Practice Test

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Total 365 questions
Question 1

An airline's frequent flyer's club awards benefits depending on which tier a customer is in. The software must determine which tier to allocate a customer to based on an input value of total Credits Earned to date

Customers initially join the Silver Tier and remain in that tier for the first 400 Credits Earned The next 400 Credits Earned moves the customer into the Gold Tier. The next 600 Credits Earned moves the customer into the Platinum Tier Further Credits Earned moves the customer into the Concierge Tier.

Test Cases have been written with the following total Credits Earned input values:

TC1 -400 Credits

TC2 - 500 Credits

TC3 - 800 Credits

TC4-1500 Credits

Applying the Equivalence Partitioning test design technique, what percentage of valid Equivalence Partitions have these 4 test cases collectively achieved?



Answer : D

Equivalence Partitioning is a black-box test design technique that divides input data of a software module into partitions of equivalent data from which test cases can be derived. In this context, the valid equivalence partitions are:

Silver Tier: 0 to 400 Credits

Gold Tier: 401 to 800 Credits

Platinum Tier: 801 to 1400 Credits

Concierge Tier: 1401+ Credits

The test cases provided cover all these partitions:

TC1 covers the Silver Tier boundary at 400 Credits.

TC2 covers within the Gold Tier at 500 Credits.

TC3 covers the Gold Tier boundary at 800 Credits.

TC4 covers within the Concierge Tier at 1500 Credits.

Since all valid partitions are covered by the test cases, 100% of the valid Equivalence Partitions have been achieved.


Question 2

Which of the following is MOST likely to be an example of a PROJECT risk?



Answer : C

The correct answer is C, as it is an example of a project risk.A project risk is a risk that affects the management and control of the testing project, such as planning, budget, schedule, resources, quality, or scope1.Team members' skills may not be sufficient for the assigned work is a project risk, as it affects the quality and efficiency of the testing activities1. Option A is incorrect, as it is an example of a product risk.A product risk is a risk that affects the quality of the software product under test, such as functionality, reliability, usability, security, or performance1.A system architecture may not support some non-functional requirements is a product risk, as it affects the reliability and performance of the software product1. Option B is incorrect, as it is an example of a defect.A defect is a flaw in the software product that causes it to produce incorrect or unexpected results or behavior1.A computation is not always performed correctly in some situations is a defect, as it causes the software product to produce incorrect results1. Option D is incorrect, as it is an example of a defect.A defect is a flaw in the software product that causes it to produce incorrect or unexpected results or behavior1.Specific modules do not adequately meet their intended functions according to the user is a defect, as it causes the software product to produce unexpected behavior1. Reference:1, Section 2.8


Question 3

Which of the following BEST defines risk level?



Answer : B

The correct answer is B, as it defines risk level correctly.Risk level is determined by the likelihood of an event happening and the impact or harm from that event4.Likelihood is the probability or frequency of the event occurring4.Impact is the severity or consequence of the event occurring4.Risk level can be calculated by multiplying likelihood and impact, or by using a risk matrix that assigns risk levels based on different combinations of likelihood and impact4. Option A is incorrect, as it does not define risk level correctly.Risk level is not calculated by adding the probabilities of all planned risks to a project, but by assessing the likelihood and impact of each individual risk4. Option C is incorrect, as it does not define risk level correctly.Risk level is not calculated by dividing the sum of all known risks by the sum of all unknown risks, but by assessing the likelihood and impact of each individual risk4. Option D is incorrect, as it does not define risk level correctly.Risk level is not determined by calculating the absolute value of the sum of all potential issues that may occur on the project, but by assessing the likelihood and impact of each individual risk4. Reference:4, Section 2.8


Question 4

Which of the following BEST describes a test summary report for executive-level employees?



Answer : D

The correct answer is D, as it describes a test summary report for executive-level employees.A test summary report is a document that summarizes the results and evaluation of testing activities for a specific activity or phase3.It may have different levels of detail and content depending on the intended audience and purpose3.A test summary report for executive-level employees is typically high-level and includes a status summary of defects by priority or budget3.This type of report provides a concise overview of the quality and progress of testing without going into too much detail or technical information3. Option A is incorrect, as it describes a test summary report for technical-level employees.A test summary report for technical-level employees is typically detailed and includes specific information on defects and trends3.This type of report provides a comprehensive analysis of the quality and progress of testing with relevant data and metrics3. Option B is incorrect, as it describes a test summary report that is neither suitable for executive-level nor technical-level employees.A test summary report that is detailed and includes a status summary of defects by priority or budget is too detailed for executive-level employees and too vague for technical-level employees3. Option C is incorrect, as it describes a test summary report that is neither suitable for executive-level nor technical-level employees.A test summary report that is high-level and includes specific information on defects and trends is too high-level for technical-level employees and too specific for executive-level employees3. Reference:3, Section 2.7


Question 5

Which of the following statements about test estimation approaches is CORRECT?



Answer : A

The correct answer is A, as it states that the Wideband Delphi estimation technique is an example of the expert-based approach.The Wideband Delphi estimation technique is a method of estimating testing effort or duration by using a structured group process that involves multiple experts2.The experts provide their estimates independently and anonymously, then compare and discuss them until they reach a consensus2.This technique is an example of the expert-based approach, which is an approach that relies on the knowledge and experience of experts to estimate testing activities2. Option B is incorrect, as it states that the Wideband Delphi estimation technique is an example of the metrics-based approach.The metrics-based approach is an approach that uses historical data and mathematical formulas to estimate testing activities2. This approach does not involve experts or group processes. Option C is incorrect, as it states that burndown charts used in Agile development is an example of the expert-based approach.Burndown charts are graphical tools that show the amount of work remaining versus time in an Agile project2. They are used to monitor and control testing progress and quality. They are not examples of the expert-based approach, as they do not rely on experts' opinions or estimates. Option D is incorrect, as it states that burndown charts used in Agile development is an example of the risk-based approach.The risk-based approach is an approach that uses risk analysis to prioritize and estimate testing activities2. This approach involves identifying and assessing risks based on their likelihood and impact.It does not involve burndown charts or Agile development. Reference:2, Section 2.6


Question 6

Given the following review process main activities and specific review activities:

a. Planning

b. Initiate review

c. Issue communication and analysis

d. Fixing and reporting

1. Creating defect reports

2. Estimating effort and timeframe

3. Recording updated status of defects

4. Selecting the people to participate

5. Distributing the work product and other material

6. Evaluating the review findings

Which of the following BEST matches the review process main activities with the appropriate specific review activities?



Answer : B

The correct matching of the review process main activities with the appropriate specific review activities is as follows1:

Planning: Estimating effort and timeframe (2), Selecting the people to participate (4)

Initiate review: Distributing the work product and other material (5)

Issue communication and analysis: Evaluating the review findings (6)

Fixing and reporting: Creating defect reports (1), Recording updated status of defects (3)

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.Options A, C, and D are incorrect, as they do not match the review process main activities with the appropriate specific review activities correctly. Reference:1, Section 3.2.2


Question 7

Which of the following statements BEST states the value of static testing?



Answer : A

Static testing can prevent defects later in design and coding by uncovering issues in requirements1.This is the best statement of the value of static testing, as it can save time and money by finding defects early in the development process1.Option B is incorrect, as static testing is most effective when performed before dynamic testing1.Option C is incorrect, as static testing can detect different types of defects than those found by dynamic testing, such as inconsistencies, ambiguities, omissions, and incompleteness1.Option D is incorrect, as static testing can improve team member communication by facilitating reviews and inspections1. Reference:1, Section 3.1


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Total 365 questions