ISC2 CSSLP Certified Secure Software Lifecycle Professional Exam Practice Test

Answer : A, C, D

The security challenges for DRM are as follows:

Key hiding: It prevents tampering attacks that target the secret keys. In the key hiding process, secret keys are used for

authentication, encryption, and node-locking.

Device fingerprinting: It prevents fraud and provides secure authentication. Device fingerprinting includes the summary of hardware

and software characteristics in order to uniquely identify a device.

OTA provisioning: It provides end-to-end encryption or other secure ways for delivery of copyrighted software to mobile devices.

Answer B is incorrect. Access control is not a security challenge for DRM.

Answer : D

There are four risk responses available for a negative risk event.

The risk response strategies for negative risks are:

Avoid: It involves altering the project management plan to remove the threats completely.

Transfer: It requires shifting some or all of the negative effects of a threat including the ownership of response, to a third party.

Mitigate: It implies a drop in the probability and impact of an unfavorable risk event to be within suitable threshold limits.

Accept: It delineates that the project plan will not be changed to deal with the risk. Management may develop a contingency plan if the

risk occurs. It is used for both negative and positive risks.

Answer C is incorrect. There are four responses for negative risk events.

Answer A is incorrect. There are four, not three, responses for negative risk events. Do not forget that acceptance can be used for

negative risk events.

Answer B is incorrect. There are seven total risk responses, four of which can be used for negative risk events.

Answer : C

The risk management plan defines the roles and responsibilities for conducting risk management.

A Risk management plan is a document arranged by a project manager to estimate the effectiveness, predict risks, and build response plans

to mitigate them. It also consists of the risk assessment matrix.

Risks are built in with any project, and project managers evaluate risks repeatedly and build plans to address them. The risk management

plan consists of analysis of possible risks with both high and low impacts, and the mitigation strategies to facilitate the project and avoid

being derailed through which the common problems arise. Risk management plans should be timely reviewed by the project team in order to

avoid having the analysis become stale and not reflective of actual potential project risks. Most critically, risk management plans include a risk

strategy for project execution.

Answer A is incorrect. The risk register does not define the risk management roles and responsibilities.

Answer D is incorrect. Enterprise environmental factors may define the roles that risk management officials or departments play in the

project, but the best answer for all projects is the risk management plan.

Answer B is incorrect. The staffing management plan does not define the risk management roles and responsibilities.

Answer : C, D

A host-based intrusion prevention system (HIPS) is an application usually employed on a single computer. It complements traditional finger-

print-based and heuristic antivirus detection methods, since it does not need continuous updates to stay ahead of new malware. When a

malicious code needs to modify the system or other software residing on the machine, a HIPS system will notice some of the resulting changes

and prevent the action by default or notify the user for permission. It can handle encrypted and unencrypted traffic equally and cannot detect

events scattered over the network.

Answer B is incorrect. Network address translation (NAT) is a technique that allows multiple computers to share one or more IP

addresses. NAT is configured at the server between a private network and the Internet. It allows the computers in a private network to share

a global, ISP assigned address. NAT modifies the headers of packets traversing the server. For packets outbound to the Internet, it translates

the source addresses from private to public, whereas for packets inbound from the Internet, it translates the destination addresses from

public to private.

Answer A is incorrect. Network intrusion prevention system (NIPS) is a hardware/software platform that is designed to analyze, detect,

and report on security related events. NIPS is designed to inspect traffic and based on its configuration or security policy, it can drop malicious

traffic. NIPS is able to detect events scattered over the network and can react.

Answer : B

Teardrop is an attack with IP fragments that cannot be reassembled. In this attack, corrupt packets are sent to the victim's computer by using

IP's packet fragmentation algorithm. As a result of this attack, the victim's computer might hang.

Answer D is incorrect. Smurf is an ICMP attack that involves spoofing and flooding.

Answer C is incorrect. Dictionary attack is a type of password guessing attack. This type of attack uses a dictionary of common words to

find out the password of a user. It can also use common words in either upper or lower case to find a password. There are many programs

available on the Internet to automate and execute dictionary attacks.

Answer A is incorrect. A password guessing attack occurs when an unauthorized user tries to log on repeatedly to a computer or

network by guessing usernames and passwords. Many password guessing programs that attempt to break passwords are available on the

Internet. Following are the types of password guessing attacks:

Brute force attack

Dictionary attack

Answer : A

The configuration management system ensures that proposed changes to the project's scope are reviewed and evaluated for their affect on

the project's product.

Configuration Management System is a subsystem of the overall project management system. It is a collection of formal documented

procedures used to identify and document the functional and physical characteristics of a product, result, service, or component of the project.

It also controls any changes to such characteristics, and records and reports each change and its implementation status. It includes the

documentation, tracking systems, and defined approval levels necessary for authorizing and controlling changes. Audits are performed as part

of configuration management to determine if the requirements have been met.

Answer B is incorrect. The scope change control system focuses on reviewing the actual changes to the project scope. When a change

to the project's scope is proposed, the configuration management system is also invoked.

Answer C is incorrect. The cost change control system is responsible for reviewing and controlling changes to the project costs.

Answer D is incorrect. Integrated change control examines the affect of a proposed change on the project as a whole.

Answer : A

Once the risk events have passed through qualitative risk analysis, then the risk events must be reviewed to determine the effect of the risks

on the project's competing demands.

Answer D is incorrect. While the quantitative risk analysis process will review the risk events for probability and impact, this statement

does not answer the question as completely as answer option A.

Answer C is incorrect. The quantitative risk analysis process does not review every risk identified - only the risks which require further

analysis.

Answer B is incorrect. Quantitative risk analysis process does not begin the risk response process. Its goal is to determine the effect of

certain risk events on the project's competing demands.