ASTQB CTFL Exam Practice Test Instant Access

Question 1

Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management..?

AStatus accounting of configuration items

BAuditing conformance to ISO9001

CIdentification of test versions

DRecord of changes to documentation over time

EControlled library access

Answer : B

Question 2

A system is designed to accept values of examination marks as follows:

Fail: 0--39 inclusive Pass: 40--59 inclusive Merit: 60--79 inclusive Distinction: 80--100 inclusive

In which of the following sets of values are all values in different equivalence partitions?

A25, 40, 60, 75

B0, 45, 79, 87

C35, 40, 59, 69

D25, 39, 60, 81

Answer : B

Question 3

Which of the following types of test tool are most likely to include traceability functions?

(i) Performance testing tool

(ii) Requirements management tool

(iii) Configuration management tool

(iv) Static analysis tool

A(i) and (ii)

B(i) and (iv)

C(ii) and (iii)

D(iii) and (iv)

Answer : C

Requirements management tools (ii) have traceability because they enable test conditions and subsequently test scripts and defects to be traced back to requirements. Configuration management tools (iii) also need to trace the appropriate version of a test script to the release or version of a system or module.

Performance monitoring tools (i) and static analysis tools (iv) are designed for specific objectives. Neither of these tools particularly need traceability functions.

Question 4

How can test execution tools be of most benefit during exploratory testing?

AThey can record user actions so that defects are easier to recreate.

BThey can be used to perform the regression aspects of exploratory testing.

CThey can help to mitigate the risk of low test coverage.

DThey can use data-driven tests to increase the amount of exploratory testing performed.

Answer : A

Exploratory testing is used when it is unclear what the system is supposed to do. Therefore test execution tools are of little use because expected results cannot be predicted.

However, the record feature of a test execution tool can be used to log the actions performed so that defects can be recreated (option (A)) and rectified more easily.

Question 5

Which of the following principles should be followed when introducing a test tool into an organization?

(i) Assessing organizational maturity to establish whether a tool will provide expected benefits.

(ii) Requiring a quick payback on the initial investment.

(iii) Including a requirement for the tool to be easy to use without having to train unskilled testers.

(iv) Identifying and agreeing requirements before evaluating test tools.

A(i) and (ii)

B(i) and (iv)

C(ii) and (iii)

D(iii) and (iv)

Answer : B

Assessing organizational maturity (i) is very important when deciding whether to introduce a test tool, as implementing a tool in an immature test organization with poor processes is unlikely to produce any benefits.

A quick return on the initial investment (ii) in a test tool is rare.

Having a requirement that a tool should be easy to use for untrained and unskilled testers

(iii) is generally a false hope. This is comparable with expecting someone who has never driven a car to be able to drive safely and effectively.

Agreeing requirements before evaluating tools (iv) is essential. Not to do so would be comparable with building and testing a system without requirements.

In conclusion, (i) and (iv) are good principles to follow when introducing a tool and (ii) and

(iii) are not.

Question 6

Which of the following pairs of test tools are likely to be most useful during the test analysis and design stage of the fundamental test process?

(i) Test execution tool

(ii) Test data preparation tool

(iii) Test management tool

(iv) Requirements management tool

A(i) and (ii)

B(i) and (iv)

C(ii) and (iii)

D(iii) and (iv)

Answer : D

Question 7

Which of the following are valid justifications for developers testing their own code during unit testing?

(i) Their lack of independence is mitigated by independent testing during system and acceptance testing.

(ii) A person with a good understanding of the code can find more defects more quickly using white-box techniques.

(iii) Developers have a better understanding of the requirements than testers.

(iv) Testers write unnecessary incident reports because they find minor differences between the way in which the system behaves and the way in which it is specified to work.

A(i) and (ii)

B(i) and (iv)

C(ii) and (iii)

D(iii) and (iv)

Answer : A

It is unlikely that developers will have a better understanding of the requirements than testers, partly because testers work closely with the user community (and may be drawn from it) and partly because developers seldom work with the complete set of requirements in a medium to large development.

Testers may raise incidents related to the difference between user expectations and the specification, but these are not unnecessary. Such issues are more likely to arise at the later stages of testing.

Early testing (unit testing) is usually done most effectively by developers with a good understanding of the code and the development environment; they can be more efficient and more effective at this level. Later independent stages of testing offset any disadvantage from the lack of independence at unit testing level.

ASTQB CTFL ISTQB Foundation Level Exam Practice Test